Blood Bank BOC Questions 252-330

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1.
1 point
A patient's serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as anti-D. Anti-JK^a, anti-Fy^a and possibly another antibody are present. What technique(s) may be helpful to identify the other antibody(ies)?
2.
1 point
The serum of a group O, Cde/Cde donor contains anti-D. In order to prepare a suitable anti-D reagent from this donor's serum, which of the following cells would be suitable for the adsorption?
3.
1 point
The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
4.
1 point
One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBCs utilizes:
5.
1 point
How would the hematocrit of a patient with chronic anemia be affected by the transfusion of a unit of Whole Blood containing 475 mL of blood, vs 2 units of Red Blood Cells each witha total bolume of 250 mL?
6.
1 point
After checking the inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked "May Issue as Uncrossmatched: For Emergency Use Only"Which of the following should be placed on this shelf?
7.
1 point
A 42-year-old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of Red Blood Cells are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dL, the expected posttransfusion hemoglobin concentration should be:
8.
1 point
How many units of Red Blood Cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70kg nonbleeding man from 24% to 30%?
9.
1 point
Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
10.
1 point
Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of fresh frozen plasma?
11.
1 point
A patient who is group AB, Rh-negative needs 2 units of Fresh Frozen Plasma. Which of the following units of plasma would be most acceptable for transfusion?
12.
1 point
What increment of platelets/uL, in the typical 70-kg human, is expected to result from each single unit of Platelets transfused to a non-HLA-sensitized recipient?
13.
1 point
A patient received about 15 mL of compatible blood and developed sever shock, but no fever. If the patient neeeds another transfusion, what kind of red blood cell component should be given?
14.
1 point
Fresh Frozen Plasma from a group A, Rh-positive donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is group:
15.
1 point
A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP). His blood donor card states that he is group AB, Rh-positive. Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?
16.
1 point
Fresh Frozen Plasma:
17.
1 point
Ten units of group A platelets were transfused to a group AB patient. The pretransfusion platelet count was 12x10^3 uL and the posttransfusion count was 18x10^3 uL. From this information, the laboratorian would most likely conclude that the patient:
18.
1 point
Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
19.
1 point
An unexplained fall in hemoglobin and mild jaundice in a patient transfused with Red Blood Cells 1 week previously would most likely indicate:
20.
1 point
In a delayed transfusion reaction, the causative antibody is generally too weak to be detected in routine compatibility testing and antibody screening tests, but is typically detectable at what point after transfusion?
21.
1 point
The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility of which blood group system?
22.
1 point
Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?
23.
1 point
Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
24.
1 point
After receiving a unit of Red blood Cells, a patient immediately developed flushing, nervousness, fever spike of 102 F, shaking, chills and back pain. The plasma hemoglobin was elevated and there was hemoglobinuria. Laboratory investigation of this adverse reaction would most likely show:
25.
1 point
A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood may develope:
26.
1 point
The most appropriate laboratory test for early detection of acute posttransfusion hemolysis is:
27.
1 point
During initial investigation of a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction, it was observed that the posttransfusion serum was yellow in color and the direct antiglobulin test was negative. Repeat ABO typin on the posttransfusion sample confirmed the pretransfusion results. What is the next step in this investigation?
28.
1 point
Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuira, DIC and renal failure?
29.
1 point
Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
30.
1 point
When evaluating a suspected transfusion reaction, which of the following is the ideal sample collection time for a billirubin determination?
31.
1 point
A patient's record shows a previous anti-JK^b, but the current antibody screen is negative. What further testing should be done before transfusion?
32.
1 point
A posttransfusion blood sample from a patient experiencing chills and fever shows distinct hemolysis. The direct antiglobulin test is positive(mixed field). What would be most helpful to determine the cause of the reaction?
33.
1 point
In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, the direct antiglobulin test is typically:
34.
1 point
For a patient who has suffered an acute heolytic transfusion reaction, the primary tratment goal should be to:
35.
1 point
A patient multiply transfused with Red Blood Cells developed a headache, nausea, fever and chills during his last transfusion. What component is most appropriate to prevent this reaction in the future?
36.
1 point
The use of Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells and Platelets is indicated for which of the following patient groups?
37.
1 point
Leukocye-Poor Red Blood Cells would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of:
38.
1 point
Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with:
39.
1 point
Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?
40.
1 point
Fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
41.
1 point
Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
42.
1 point
A temperature rise of 1C or more occuring in association with a transfusion with no abnormal results in the transfusion reaction inverstigation, usually indicates which of the following reactions?
43.
1 point
A 65-year-old woman experienced shaking, chills, and a fever of 102 F approximately 40 minutes following the transfusion of a second unit of Red Blood Cells. The most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms is:
44.
1 point
Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?
45.
1 point
A patient with a coagulopathy was transfused with FP24. After infusion of 15 mL, the patint experienced hypotension, shock, chest pain and difficulty in breathing. The most likely cause of the reaction is:
46.
1 point
To prevent febrile transfusion reactions, which Red Blood Cell product should be transfused?
47.
1 point
During the issue of an autologous unit of whole blood, the supernatant plasma is observed to be dark red in color. What would be the best course of action?
48.
1 point
Coughing, cyanosis, and difficulty breathing are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
49.
1 point
Which of the following is a nonimmunologic adverse effect of a transfusion?
50.
1 point
Congestive heart failure, sever headache and/or peripheral edema ocurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?