micro

1.

1 point

which of the following antibiotics inhibit cell wall biosynthesis by binding to the transpeptidation enzyme

vancomycin

cephalosporins

penicillin G

streptomycin

pyridomycin

2.

1 point

a region found on some plasmids the specifically allows for alpha complementation could best be termed

MCS

MBC

ori

MIC

lacZ

3.

1 point

which of the following can be G - cocci

A. neisseria lactimica

B. bacillus cerus

C. corynebacterium xerosa

D. clostridium sordelli

a and c

none of the above

4.

1 point

the enzyme used to produce cDN include

a. RNaseH

b. Pst I

c. reverse transcriptase

d. RNA polymerase

a and c

all the above

5.

1 point

which is true for koch's postulates

they represent the universal paradigm for identification of the causative agent for any disease such as the first recorded instance of pontiac fever

the first postulate is that the microorganism must be grown in culture

the microorganism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original suspected causative agent

was used by peter dueberg to control the cholera outbreak in london during 1900

none the above

6.

1 point

common manifestations of non typhoidal salmonellosis include which of the following. which of the following are potential mechanisms for antibiotic resistant as it pertains to peptidoglycans

a. bloody diarrhea

b. abdominal cramps

c. sepsis

d. renal failure

c and d

7.

1 point

which is true for molecular version of Kochs postulates

they were developed by robert koch

the allow for a logical study to determine if a suspected microorganism can cause a specific disease

it requires an animal model to test genetic constructs

microorganism must be present in every case of the disease but absent from healthy organisms (individuals)

none the above

8.

1 point

which is true for septic shock

a. TNF and IL-1 can be produced by lipid A activated enzyme

b. DIC can occur through LPS activation of the coagulation cascade

c. LPS can activate mast cells

d. LPS can directly damage the vascular endothelium

a and b

all the above

9.

1 point

which component is required for nucleotide sequencing but not PCR

ddNTPs

primers

DNA template

enzymes

all the above

10.

1 point

the best description of the mechanism of action of moxifloxacin is

inhibits transpeptidation of peptidoglycan

inhibition of DNA gryase

inhibits binding of RNA polymerase

binds to 30S ribosomal subunit and induces misreading

none the above

11.

1 point

which is true for restriction enzymes

they may have an integral methylase function

SAM is used as a methyl donor for modification of specific nucleotides

some restriction enzymes may cut at or within their recognition site

some restriction enzymes may cut at a defined distance from their recognition site

all the above

12.

1 point

Macronutrients include all of the following except

C

S

none

O

N

Cu

13.

1 point

which of the following stains/dyes is used in the capsule

malachite green

india ink

crystal violet

carbolfuchsin

all the above

none of the above

14.

1 point

what is a component that can be found associated with bacterial cells

ER

lysome

70s ribosomes

golgi apparatus

all the above

15.

1 point

b cells may

a. activate cytotoxic t cells

b. phagocytize viral particles by C3a receptors

c. produce antibodies

d. can present antigen in the context of MHC II to t helper cells

c and d

16.

1 point

which of the following could be considered to have a G+ outer membrane

c. acinetobacterium baumannii

b. corynebacteria diphtheriae

none

d. salmonella typhimurium

a. serratia marcenscens

a and c

17.

1 point

which of the following can be considered G + cocci

A. enterococcus fecalis

B. morexella oseolensis

C. legonella pneumonia

D. bacteriodes fragilis

a and c

none of the above

18.

1 point

which of the following are characteristics of chlamydia

RB is an extracellular replicating stage

all

none

EB is an extracellular stage that can infect cells

it can be effectively be treated with doxycycline

alanine is racemase may be absent

19.

1 point

the protein that will extend Okazaki fragments and remove RNA primer at 5' end of the next Okazaki fragment would be best identified as

DNA polymerase III

DNA polymerase II

DnaA

SSB

DnaB

DNA polymerase I

20.

1 point

which is/are true for Dtx

none

all

produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae

in situations of high iron levels the Fe3+ will bind within the iron box adjacent to the promoter and enhance promoter increased transcription of the gene

transcription of the gene is negatively regulated by high MCP levels

21.

1 point

what is true for the outer membrane of a gram positive

it may have flagella passing through it

it may have LPS attached to it by lipids

it may have porin inserted in it

it may Braun's lipoprotein attached to it

none the above

22.

1 point

for cloning of a gene which of the following are true

A. isolated genomic DNA could be sonicated in order to eventually produce inserts that could be cloned into an appropriate genetic vector

B. isolated genomic DNA could be partially digested with restriction enzymes in order to eventually produce inserts that could be cloned into an appropriate genetic vector

C. inserts usually contain selectable markers for antibiotic resistance

a and b

b and c

a b and c

23.

1 point

the primary rational for use of a conjugated vaccine would best be described as

converts a T independent antigen response into a T dependent response

provides a quicker immune response by eliminating the need for T cell activation

it is a safer vaccine by eliminating the presence of any protein thus minimizing chances of allergic reactions

allows for the elimination of adjutants

all the above

24.

1 point

which of the following can be G + spore forming rods

a. vibrio parahemalyticus

b. chlamydia psittaci

c. staph aureus

d. clostridium septicum

a and c

none of the above

25.

1 point

which of the following stains/dyes is used in the acid fast

malachite green

carbolfuchsin

india ink

crystal violet

all the above

none the above

26.

1 point

O antigen refers to

outer repeating polysaccharide subunit of LPS which can exhibit variability in some stains

the variable flagella peptide subunit which can exhibit variability in some strains

conserved lipid A subunit of LPS

conserved outer protein collar/sleeve associated with the flagella

varied capsules associated with different strains

27.

1 point

a microbial isolate grown aerobically produces fluorescent orange to yellow growth on Hektoen Enteric agar and yellow colonies of Flurocult agar and pink on MAC the most likely bacteria would be

chlamydia

clostridium

staph aureus

E.coli

bacillus

28.

1 point

which of the following stains/dyes is used in the gram stain

india ink

malachite green

crystal violet

carbolfuchsin

all the above

none the above

29.

1 point

which is the best description of a southern blot

DNA samples are cut with restriction enzymes separated on an agarose gel, denatured with NaOH then wicked/capillary transferred to a DNA binding filter, neutralized and then allowed to hybridize to labeled single strand probe

RNA samples are cut with restriction enzymes, separated on an agarose gel, then wicked/capillary transferred to a RNA binding filter, and then allowed to hybridize to labeled single strand DNA probe

DNA samples are cut with restriction enzymes, separated on an agarose gel, adapters are ligated on, PCR primers complementary to the adapters are used to amplify the specific fragments in a thermocycler

DNA samples are cut with restriction enzymes, adapters are ligated on. primers, DNA polymerase and a mixture of ddNTPS and dNTPS are used the produce a series of labeled nucleotide sequence that can be resolved by SDSPAGE and read as an autoradiograph

RNA samples are fragmented by sanitation, separated on an agarose gel, then wicked/capillary transferred to a RNA binding filter, and then allowed to hybridize to labeled single strand DNA probe

all the above

30.

1 point

the three steps that take place in each cycle during a PCR occur in which order

DNA annealing denaturation synthesis

DNA denaturation annealing synthesis

DNA synthesis denaturation annealing

a and b

all the above

31.

1 point

a layer comprised of phospholipids with porins and LPS attached

capsule

slime layer

outer membrane

envelope

capsid

32.

1 point

common features between Nocardia and Mycobacterium

a. both produce mycoic acids

b. both have different O antigen and similar flagella antigen

c. both have similar lipid A

d. both can produce proton gradients across their outer membrane

a and c

all the above

33.

1 point

which of the following can be considered a pro drug

vancomycin

cephalosporins

pyridomycin

isonizid

c and d

all the above

34.

1 point

which of the following are potential mechanism for antibiotic resistant as it pertains to peptidoglycan

a. increased inna encoded protein

b. production of a beta-lactimase

c. muation in katG

d. a change in the terminal amino acid from D-alanine to D-serine

b and d

none the above

35.

1 point

valid rational for why non typhoidal salmonellosis was under estimated prior to 1990 would include

a. limited availability of PCR for stereotyping

b. limited public health resources in the affected islands

c. limited incidence among tourists visiting the islands

a and b

b and c

a b and c

36.

1 point

if PG induces an inflammatory response in the host and that enhances survival/replication of Chlamydia which of the following would be the most probable means of doing so

EB releases PG subunits that bind NOD1 and induce expression of IL 8

RB releases PG subunits that bind TLR4 and induce expression of IL 8

RB releases PG subunits that bind NOD1 and induce expression of IL 8

EB releases PG subunits that bind MYD 88 and induce expression of IL 8

EB releases PG subunits that bind TLR4 and induce expression of IL 8

37.

1 point

best description of the mechanism of action of tetracycline is

none

inhibits binding of RNA polymerase

inhibition of DNA gryase

inhibits transpeptidation of peptidoglycan

binds to 30S ribosomal subunit that induces misreading

38.

1 point

common features of a generic gram negative bacteria and a generic gram positive bacteria are

both have teichoic acids within their outer envelope

both have NAM as a cell wall component

both use ATP produced by mitochondria

both have lipid A in their cytoplasmic membrane attached to their peptidoglycan

all the above

none of the above

39.

1 point

a series of restriction sites engineered into a plasmid to make it easier for insertion of foreign DNA (insert) could best be termed

MBC

MCS

origin of rep

MIC

lacZ

40.

1 point

which of the following would robert day consider correct

a. 2 rules of grammar are to never split infinitives and never let your participle dangle

b. the 2 rules of grammar are never split infinitives and never let the participle dangle

c. The two rules of grammar are to never split infinitives and never let the participle dangle

d. there are at least 13 difficult questions in this exam

a and d

c and d

41.

1 point

which of the following media are just selective

all

TSA with penicillin

MAC

none

pea

blood agar

42.

1 point

a living organism that transfers and ineffective agent between hosts would best be termed

harborage host

vector

fomite

reservoir

none the above

43.

1 point

which of the following can be considered G positive rods

A. Serratia marcescens

B. salmonella typhimurium

C. acinetobacterium baumannii

D. listeria monocytogenes

a and e

none of the above

44.

1 point

common features of pontiac fever and cholera include

predominately represent common source epidemics

both caused by exotoxins

secondary infections are common

both are difficult to isolate and grow in pure culture

all the above

45.

1 point

which of the following could most likely be described as a conjugated vaccine

the DTap vaccine given to a pre schooler

rabies vaccine given to an animal control officer

C1N1 influenza vaccine given to health care workers

haemophilus infuenza type B vaccine given to a 6 month old child

the TB vaccine (BCG) give to peace corp volunteers traveling to endemic areas

46.

1 point

which of the following can be considered acid fast

A. staph aureus

B. mycoplasma pneumonia

C. micrococcus luteus

D. e. coli

a and e

none of the above